144 Varshitha Kalidindi
Welcome to my e-log!
I am Varshitha Kalidindi, a 2nd year MBBS student. Here is an assignment which was given to me and I will be answering it question wise below:-
Question 1: Competency tested for Peer to peer review and assessment :
https://soumyanadella128eloggm.blogspot.com/2021/05/a-55-year-old-female-with-shortness-of.html
- anatomical location and pathophysiology
*Abrupt cessation of chronic alcohol consumption unmasks these changes with a glutamate-mediated CNS excitation resulting in autonomic overactivity and neuropsychiatric complications such as delirium and seizures.The latter are usually of generalized tonic–clonic type and are mediated largely in the brainstem by abrogation of the tonic inhibitory effect of the GABAergic delta subunits
My review: The case being discussed here is basically of a patient who has a history of diabetes, seizures. He also has short term memory loss and speaks irrelevantly. The patient was diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy.
This answer has been very creatively written with a nice flowchart explaining the evolution of the symptoms from when they first appeared. A diagram has been used judiciously to explain the effects of intoxication, chronic alcohol consumption and withdrawal on the homeostasis of GABA and glutamate. Also, all the points that the question has suggested have been answered as well. Overall, it is a very good answer.
R3:The answer that I will be reviewing is from the link given below:-https://caseopinionsbyrollno05.blogspot.com/2021/05/medicine-blended-assignment-may-2021.html
Link to patient details:
https://soumyanadella128eloggm.blogspot.com/2021/05/a-55-year-old-female-with-shortness-of.html
b)PHARMACOLOGICAL INTERVENTION
head end elevation
MECHANISM:In an intervention study involving early mobilization of intubated abdominal surgery patients, it was observed that high thoracic positions, such as sitting upright for 20 minutes, led to an improvement in transthoracic pressure, with consequent improvement in the Cst, rs. This gain enabled a reduction in the driving pressure required for the generation of a similar lung volume.
BiPAP
MECHANISM: During systole, CPAP induced increase in intrathoracic pressure reduces the venous return, decreasing the right and left ventricular preload, thereby improving mechanics in an overloaded ventricle, whereas in diastole, CPAP increases pericardial pressure, reduces transmural pressure, and thus decreases afterload.
Agumentin(amoxicillin+calvulanic acid)
MECHANISM: Amoxicillin binds to penicillin-binding proteins within the bacterial cell wall and inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. Clavulanic acid is a β-lactam, structurally related to penicillin, that may inactivate certain β-lactamase enzymes
Azithromycin
MECHANISM: Azithromycin binds to the 23S rRNA of the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit. It stops bacterial protein synthesis by inhibiting the transpeptidation/translocation step of protein synthesis and by inhibiting the assembly of the 50S ribosomal subunit
inj.lasix
MECHANISM: Furosemide, like other loop diuretics, acts by inhibiting the luminal Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, by binding to the chloride transport channel, thus causing sodium, chloride, and potassium loss in urine.
tab.Pantop
MECHANISM: The mechanism of action of pantoprazole is to inhibit the final step in gastric acid production. In the gastric parietal cell of the stomach, pantoprazole covalently binds to the H+/K+ ATP pump to inhibit gastric acid and basal acid secretion. The covalent binding prevents acid secretion for up to 24 hours and longer.
inj. hydrocortisone
MECHANISM:Hydrocortisone binds to the glucocorticoid receptor leading to downstream effects such as inhibition of phospholipase A2, NF-kappa B, other inflammatory transcription factors, and the promotion of anti-inflammatory genes. Hydrocortisone has a wide therapeutic index and a moderate duration of action.
Neb. with ipravent ,budecortisone
MECHANISM:
*Ipravent belongs to a group of medicines known as anticholinergic bronchodilators. Anticholinergic bronchodilators work by relaxing the bronchial tubes (air passages) that carry air in and out of your lungs. This makes breathing less difficult.
*Budesonide is a potent topical anti-inflammatory agent. [19] It binds and activates glucocorticoid receptors (GR) in the effector cell (e.g., bronchial) cytoplasm that allows the translocation of this budesonide-GR complex in the bronchi nucleus, which binds to both HDCA2 and CBP
tab.pulmoclear
MECHANISM: Pulmoclear Tablet is a combination of two mucolytic medicines: Acebrophylline and Acetylcysteine. It thins and loosens mucus (phlegm) making it easier to cough out.
chest physiotherapy
MECHANISM:The aims of ACTs in patients with COPD are to assist sputum clearance in an attempt to reduce symptoms and paroxysmal coughing, slow the decline in lung function, reduce exacerbation frequency and hasten the recovery from exacerbations.
inj.thiamine
MECHANISM:thiamine may augment aerobic metabolism in the critically ill, even in the absence of absolute deficiency. We hypothesized that the administration of intravenous thiamine to critically ill patients would cause an increase in oxygen extraction and V.o2.
BP,PR,SPO2,Temp
MECHANISM: All 3 vital signs acquired from a pulse oximeter (pulse rate, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate) are predictive of COPD exacerbation events, with oxygen saturation being the most predictive, followed by respiratory rate and pulse rate.
I/O charting
MECHANISM: Fluid overload or pulmonary/vascular congestion is a common clinical feature in patients with heart failure and is associated with adverse outcomes. Maintaining records of patients' fluid intake and output (I&O) has long been considered an important aspect of nursing care to assess hydration status.
c) The cause of acute Exaberation in this patient is probably due to generalised weakness due to the drugs or due to upper respiratory tract infection.
d)ATT could have effected the patient’s condition by causing generalised weakness.
e)*Hyponatraemia in COPD develops due to many reasons such as worsening of hypoxia, hypercapnia ,respiratory acidosis and right-sided heart failure with development of lower limb oedema ,it could also be due to renal insufficiency.
*respiratory acidosis with metabolic alkalosis( owing to renal compensation) in patients with COPD with hypercapnia is the usual cause of hypochloremia.
My review: The patient is a 55 year old female with shortness of breath, pedal oedema and facial puffiness. She has a history of Diabetes Mellitus and is currently receiving treatment for hypertension. Her drug history is as follows:-
Empirical ATT (Rifampicin:600mg, Isoniazid: 300 mg) started on 4/5/21 and terminated on 16/5/21. Currently being treated for DM with Tab. Zoryl M1 OD. Currently being treated for HTN with Tab.Telma 40 OD.
This answer seems like a very flawless one as everything in the answer is very clearly written and the mechanisms of all the pharmacological interventions have been mentioned properly. I do consider this an answer well written.
R6: The answer that I will be reviewing is from the link given below:-https://preethicheera.blogspot.com/2021/05/general-medicine-case-presentation-may.html?
Link to patient's details: m=1https://rishikoundinya.blogspot.com/2021/05/55years-old-patient-with-seizures.html
QUESTIONS:
1)Is there any relationship between occurrence of seizure to brain stroke. If yes what is the mechanism behind it?
Ans;
seizures after ischaemic strokes. An increase in intracellular Ca2+ and Na+ with a resultant lower threshold for depolarisation, glutamate excitotoxicity, hypoxia, metabolic dysfunction, global hypoperfusion, and hyperperfusion injury
Seizures after haemorrhagic strokes are thought to be attributable to irritation due to (hemosideri. Deposits)caused by products of blood metabolism
Late onset seizures are associated with the persistent changes in neuronal excitability and gliotic scarring is most probably the underlying cause.
2) In the previous episodes of seizures, patient didn't loose his consciousness but in the recent episode he lost his consciousness what might be the reason?
Initially the patient might have had Simple partial seizures (no loss of consciousness) and might have progressed to Generalised Tonic Clonic seizures (loss of consciousness)
My review: A 55 year old male patient came to OPD with c/o altered sensorium and involuntary movements. He had recurrent episodes of seizures since 5 years. These symptoms followed an injury to the head which was diagnosed as brain stroke.
There are 2 questions here, both of which were answered in a clear way. The mechanism behind the brain stroke leading to seizures was explained in a detailed way. The second answer could've maybe been a bit more elaborate, like how the simple partial seizures progressed into generalised tonic clonic seizures.
R7: The answer that I will be reviewing is from the link given below:-
http://santhoshdarimedi.blogspot.com/2021/05/medicine-blended-assignment.html
Link to patient details: https://kausalyavarma.blogspot.com/2021/05/a-52-year-old-male-with-cerebellar.html?m=1
What is the evolution of the symptomatology in this patient in terms of an event timeline and where is the anatomical localisation for the problem and what is the primary etiology of the patient's problem?
Ans : 7 days back : Giddiness associated with one episode of vomiting
Then asymptomatic for 3 days he consumed a small amount of alcohol
Then he developed : giddiness associated with aural fullness ,bilateral hearing loss,tinnitus,2 to 3 episodes of vomiting's
DENOVO hypertension
LOCALISATION OF LESION: Presence of Infract in the Inferior Cerebellar hemisphere of the Brain
PRIMARY ETIOLOGY: Ataxia is the loss of muscle control or coordination of Voluntary movements such as, Walking or Picking up of objects.
In this case, Patient is a known case of denovo hypertension. For this he has not taken medication.
Stroke is due to infract can be caused by blockage or bleeding in the brain, due to which brain is deprevied of Nutrients and Oxygen. This may lead to infract formation.
My review: A 52 year old male came to the hospital 2 days back presenting with slurring of speech and deviation of mouth that lasted for one day and resolved on the same day. The patient also has history of postural instability and is unable to walk without supports. He also has history of giddiness and vomiting.
This answer has, in a very concise way, mentioned the evolution of the symptomatology of the patient. The anatomical localisation and the primary etiology have been mentioned and explained as well. I thin the localisation of the lesion can be explained more, like how was the lesion localised. Overall, the answer has done justice to the question.
R8: The answer that I will be reviewing is from the link given below:-http://pranaykumar32.blogspot.com/2021/06/general-medicine-assignment.html
Link to patient's details:https://daddalavineeshachowdary.blogspot.com/2021/05/67-year-old-patient-with-acute-coronary.html?m=1
1)What is the evolution of the symptomatology in this patient in terms of an event timeline and where is the anatomical localization for the problem and what is the primary etiology of the patient's problem?Ans:- EVOLUTION OF SYMTOMATOLOGY
》Diabetes for 12 years
》Heart burn like episodes for 1 year but it relieved
》Pulmonary TB 7 months back - treatment took now she is sputum negative.
》Hypertension for 6 months - on medications
》Day of admission to hospital:- SOB since half an hour
•ANATOMICAL LOCATION OF PROBLEM: Cardiovascular system
•PRIMARY ETIOLOGY:- Atherosclerosis - Plague formation [hypertension + diabetes].
My review: A 67 year old female patient came to the OPD with complaints of shortness of breath. She has a history of diabetes. She also has a history of heartburn episodes and history of TB 7 months before, for which she completed the course of medication a month ago. She was diagnosed with Acute Coronary Syndrome.
;The evolution of the symptomatology mentioned here is clear. The anatomical localisation of the problem could've still been elaborated in a clear manner. The primary etiology of the patient's problem could've also been explained better and is probably too brief.
R9: The answer that I will be reviewing is from the link given below:-https://vidya36.blogspot.com/2021/05/medicine-blended-assignment.html
Link to patient's details:https://muskaangoyal.blogspot.com/2021/05/a-78year-old-male-with-shortness-of.htmli)
What is the difference btw heart failure with preserved ejection fraction and with reduced ejection fraction?
- Preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) – also referred to as diastolic heart failure. The heart muscle contracts normally but the ventricles do not relax as they should during ventricular filling (or when the ventricles relax). Reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) – also referred to as systolic heart failure
- Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction:
 Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), also referred to as diastolic heart failure, is characterized by signs and symptoms of heart failure and a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) greater than 50%. Heart failure associated with intermediate reductions in LVEF (40% to 49%) is also commonly grouped into this category.
- Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction:
Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction happens when the muscle of the left ventricle is not pumping as well as normal. The ejection fraction is 40% or less. The amount of blood being pumped out of the heart is less than the body needs.
My review: A 78 year old patient came to the OPD with chief complaints of shortness of breath, chest pain, bilateral pedal oedema, facial puffiness. He is a chronic smoker and alcoholic. He also has history of hypertension and diabetes.
The answer has done justice to the question asked. The difference between heart failure with preserved and reduced ejection fractions has been explained in a clear and concise way. It is clear answer.
R10:The answer that I will be reviewing is from the link given below:-https://gumudalavishal.blogspot.com/2021/06/medicine-blended-assignment.html
Link to patient's details:https://preityarlagadda.blogspot.com/2021/05/biatrial-thrombus-in-52yr-old-male.html
What is the reason for blebs and non healing ulcer in the legs of this patient?
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